NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale
1. Who owns a patient's x-rays?
- A. The patient
- B. The doctor
- C. The facility that performed the procedure
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: X-rays are typically owned by the facility that conducts the procedure, not the patient or the doctor. The facility that performs the procedure is responsible for maintaining and storing the x-rays as part of the patient's medical records. The patient does not own the x-rays since they are part of their medical record and not a physical possession. The doctor also does not own the x-rays as they are generated as a result of the medical procedure conducted at the facility, making choice C the correct answer.
2. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.
- A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
- B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
- C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
- D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.
3. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?
- A. 5 mm/hr
- B. 12 mm/hr
- C. 28 mm/hr
- D. 40 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.
4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:
- A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
- B. The client is able to take a shower
- C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
- D. The client has a temperature of 100.8�F
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8�F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding non-profit organizations?
- A. They are located in various areas, not specifically poor or rural ones.
- B. They are mandated to care for people, even if clients are unable to pay for services.
- C. The money they receive for services is reinvested back into their own business to further develop services.
- D. They are not referred to as proprietary organizations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Non-profit organizations are entities that operate for a social cause or public benefit, and they do not distribute profits to owners or shareholders. They are not limited to being located in poor or rural areas; they can be found in various locations. One key characteristic of non-profits is that they are obligated to provide services, regardless of a client's ability to pay. This ensures that essential services are accessible to all individuals in need. The statement 'The money they receive for services is reinvested back into their own business to further develop services' is correct. Non-profit organizations reinvest any surplus funds back into their operations to enhance the services they provide. The statement 'They are not referred to as proprietary organizations' is correct because proprietary organizations are typically for-profit entities, not non-profit ones.
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