Nursing Elites

1. Plantar flexion can be prevented with ________________.

• A. foot soaks
• B. foot boards
• C. toenail care
• D. proper shoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, can be prevented with foot boards, special splints, and range of motion exercises. Foot boards help maintain the foot in a neutral position, preventing contractures and deformities. Foot soaks (choice A) may help with foot hygiene but do not directly prevent plantar flexion. Toenail care (choice C) is important for overall foot health but does not prevent plantar flexion. Proper shoes (choice D) are essential for foot support and comfort but do not specifically prevent plantar flexion.

2. A client in a long-term care facility tells the nurse, 'My daughter never visits me.' The nurse responds by telling the client that when her own mother was in a long-term care facility, she found it difficult to visit. This is an example of which communication technique?

• A. Empathy
• B. Self-disclosure
• C. Disapproval
• D. False reassurance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Self-disclosure is a therapeutic communication technique that nurses use to build rapport and trust with clients. By sharing personal experiences, nurses can help clients feel understood and encourage them to open up. In this scenario, the nurse sharing her own struggle with visiting her mother demonstrates self-disclosure. Empathy (choice A) involves understanding and sharing the feelings of another, but in this case, the nurse is sharing her own experience rather than focusing solely on the client's emotions. Disapproval (choice C) and false reassurance (choice D) do not apply in this context as the nurse is not expressing disapproval or giving false hope or comfort.

3. A group of nurses who work on the quality assurance council of a unit have gathered to discuss ideas about how to educate their coworkers about Joint Commission requirements. Each of the nurses gives ideas, which are listed together without initial criticism. Eventually, all ideas on the list will be discussed as to their validity. This activity is known as:

• A. Optimizing
• B. Satisficing
• C. Brainstorming
• D. Centralizing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Brainstorming is the process in which group members generate ideas without immediate criticism or evaluation. This allows for a free flow of creative suggestions. The ideas are then listed together for consideration and discussion of their validity at a later stage. Optimizing, although related to improving efficiency, does not specifically address the initial idea generation process. Satisficing refers to accepting a satisfactory or 'good enough' solution rather than seeking the best possible option, which is not reflective of the scenario described. Centralizing typically refers to consolidating decision-making authority rather than the collaborative idea generation process seen in brainstorming.

4. A client on an acute mental health unit reports hearing voices that are stating, "kill your doctor"?. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy on the unit.
• B. Initiate one-to-one observation of the client.
• C. Focus the client on reality.
• D. Notify the provider of the client's statement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client experiences command hallucinations, such as being told to harm someone, the priority is ensuring the safety of the client and others. Initiating one-to-one observation allows for close monitoring and intervention to prevent harm. Encouraging participation in group therapy may not be appropriate or safe at this time. Focusing the client on reality may not be effective when experiencing hallucinations, and notifying the provider should come after immediate safety measures have been taken.

5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

Similar Questions