HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet
1. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock?
- A. Risk for imbalanced body temperature
- B. Excess fluid volume
- C. Fatigue
- D. Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, the priority nursing diagnosis is Ineffective Tissue Perfusion. This diagnosis indicates that the client is not receiving adequate oxygenated blood to tissues, putting vital organs at risk. Addressing ineffective tissue perfusion is crucial to prevent organ damage and ensure the client's survival. The other options, such as 'Risk for imbalanced body temperature,' 'Excess fluid volume,' and 'Fatigue,' are important but secondary to the immediate threat of inadequate tissue perfusion in cardiogenic shock.
2. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to go directly to the hospital for admission to labor and delivery for active labor
- B. Send the client home and instruct her to call the clinic when her contractions occur 5 minutes apart for one hour
- C. Tell the client to check into the hospital within the next hour for evaluation of possible urinary tract infection
- D. Advise the client to rest and hydrate, then return if contractions become more regular
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.
3. A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated, and 40% oxygen per facemask is initiated. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?
- A. Exhibits adequate tissue perfusion
- B. Remains free of injury
- C. Remains free of infection
- D. Maintains effective breathing pattern
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Successful extubation relies on the patient's ability to maintain an effective breathing pattern. This indicates that the patient can adequately oxygenate and ventilate without the need for mechanical support. Monitoring tissue perfusion, preventing infection, and ensuring safety are important but not directly related to the immediate criteria for successful extubation. Tissue perfusion, injury prevention, and infection control are crucial aspects of overall patient care but are not the primary factors to consider when evaluating readiness for extubation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory status
- B. Teach the client how to use the PCA pump
- C. Evaluate the client's pain level
- D. Assess the client's pain level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, the most critical action for the nurse to implement is to monitor the client's respiratory status. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring respiratory status allows for early detection of any signs of respiratory compromise. Teaching the client how to use the PCA pump, evaluating pain level, and assessing pain level are important aspects of care but ensuring the client's safety by monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid administration.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
- B. Provide frequent mouth care
- C. Encourage small, frequent meals
- D. Offer clear liquids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting. By administering the antiemetic before meals, the nurse can help prevent the onset of nausea, allowing the client to eat more comfortably. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice B) is important for maintaining oral hygiene but does not directly address nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) and offering clear liquids (Choice D) are generally recommended for clients experiencing nausea, but administering an antiemetic is a more targeted approach to specifically address and manage the symptom.
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