Nursing Elites

1. Which annual screening should the nurse include when planning eye health programs at a preschool?

• A. visual acuity
• B. red light reflex
• C. conjunctivitis
• D. glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: visual acuity. Screening for visual acuity is essential in preschoolers to identify any vision issues early on, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness, which may require corrective lenses or other interventions. Red light reflex (choice B) is a method used to assess the eyes for abnormalities, but it is not typically included in routine preschool eye health screenings. Conjunctivitis (choice C) is an eye infection and not a screening test. Glaucoma (choice D) is a condition more commonly associated with adults and the elderly, making it less relevant for preschool eye health programs.

2. A nurse has started a group for senior citizens in a church setting. The group decides that their first project will be to begin a program for home-bound members. Which program outcome is the best measure of the project's effectiveness?

• A. number of home-bound seniors who are visited
• B. number of church members who are over 65
• C. average annual income for the homebound members
• D. calls received showing interest in the program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The number of home-bound seniors visited is the best measure of the project's effectiveness as it directly reflects the reach and impact of the program. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the effectiveness of the program for home-bound seniors. Choice C is irrelevant as the average annual income of home-bound members is not a direct measure of the program's effectiveness. Choice D, calls showing interest, is not as direct a measure as the actual visits to the home-bound seniors.

3. During a home health visit, the nurse notices that an older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is wearing loose cloth slippers. The client reports that he cannot comfortably wear other shoes because his toenails get in the way. The nurse inspects the client's feet and finds long thick nails that curl down under some of the toes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. demonstrate proper foot care to the client and family
• B. have a home health aide assist the client with hygiene weekly
• C. schedule an appointment for the client with a podiatrist
• D. trim the client's toenails gradually over several visits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scheduling an appointment with a podiatrist is the most appropriate action in this scenario. For a client with long thick nails that curl under the toes, professional foot care by a podiatrist is necessary to prevent complications, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Demonstrating proper foot care (choice A) may not address the immediate need for nail trimming. Having a home health aide assist with hygiene weekly (choice B) may not be sufficient for managing the client's toenail issue effectively. Trimming the client's toenails gradually over several visits (choice D) should be performed by a professional like a podiatrist to avoid potential complications.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous antibiotic to a client with a central venous catheter. Which action is most important?

• A. Flush the catheter with heparin.
• B. Change the dressing at the insertion site.
• C. Check for blood return before administering the antibiotic.
• D. Use sterile technique when accessing the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using sterile technique when accessing the catheter is crucial to prevent infection in clients with a central venous catheter. This action helps maintain asepsis and reduces the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter system. Flushing the catheter with heparin helps prevent occlusion but is not as crucial as ensuring sterile technique. Changing the dressing at the insertion site is important for assessing the site's condition but does not directly impact the administration of the antibiotic. Checking for blood return is essential to ensure proper catheter function, but sterile technique takes precedence to prevent infections.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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