when assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit the nurse would be most concerned with which finding
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.

2. The client is receiving discharge teaching for heart failure. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because stopping medications when feeling better can be harmful in heart failure. It is essential to complete the full course of medication as prescribed by the healthcare provider to effectively manage heart failure. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate good understanding and compliance with heart failure management strategies, such as monitoring weight, restricting sodium intake, and adhering to prescribed medications, respectively.

3. A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with anticoagulants. Which of these findings is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain and swelling in the calf can indicate a new or worsening DVT, requiring immediate attention. Bruising on the arms and legs may be a common side effect of anticoagulants but is not as concerning as a potential DVT. Severe headache may indicate other conditions like a migraine or hypertension and is not directly related to DVT. Increased urination is not typically associated with DVT and may point towards other health issues like diabetes or urinary tract infections.

5. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

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