HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. The nurse should explain that which of the following food sources contains iron that is most easily absorbed by the body?
- A. Spinach
- B. Dried apricots
- C. Chicken
- D. Lentils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Chicken.' Heme iron from animal sources, such as chicken, is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron from plant sources like spinach, dried apricots, and lentils. While plant-based iron sources are beneficial, they are not as readily absorbed by the body as heme iron from animal products.
2. The client is being taught about precautions with Coumadin therapy. Which over-the-counter medication should the client be instructed to avoid?
- A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- B. Cough medicines with guaifenesin
- C. Histamine blockers
- D. Laxatives containing magnesium salts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). When a client is on Coumadin therapy, NSAIDs should be avoided because they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Cough medicines with guaifenesin, histamine blockers, and laxatives containing magnesium salts do not have a significant interaction with Coumadin therapy that would necessitate avoidance.
3. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
- B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
- C. Venous blood pH 7.30
- D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.
4. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?
- A. Creamed peas
- B. Cottage cheese
- C. Chocolate pudding
- D. Applesauce
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.
5. A client is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of a severe infection. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?
- A. Monitor the client's temperature
- B. Assess the client's pain level
- C. Check the intravenous (IV) site for signs of phlebitis
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory status
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is receiving intravenous antibiotics, checking the IV site for signs of phlebitis is a priority assessment for the nurse. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein, which can lead to serious complications such as infection and thrombosis. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent these complications and ensures the safe delivery of antibiotics. While monitoring the client's temperature, pain level, and respiratory status are important assessments, they are not the priority in this scenario where IV antibiotic administration requires close monitoring for complications like phlebitis.
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