HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Stridor
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Pruritus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.
2. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse he will drink plenty of dairy products to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?
- A. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea.
- B. Suggest that the client also plans to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort.
- C. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream.
- D. Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate a duodenal ulcer. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. Choice A is incorrect because switching to decaffeinated coffee and tea does not address the issue of avoiding milk and cream products. Choice B is incorrect because while eating frequent small meals can help with discomfort, it does not address the specific issue of avoiding milk and cream. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the need to avoid milk and cream products.
3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
- B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
- C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous insulin and glucose. In the presence of hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to shift potassium back into the cells to lower serum levels. Insulin, in combination with glucose, helps drive potassium intracellularly. Administering calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize myocardial cell membranes but does not address the underlying cause of hyperkalemia. Administering sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is not the initial treatment for hyperkalemia. Loop diuretics (choice D) may be used later to enhance potassium excretion but are not the primary intervention for acute hyperkalemia.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of accessory muscles. This finding indicates increased work of breathing in a client with COPD and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the use of accessory muscles suggests that the client is in distress and struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with DKA as it may indicate worsening hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated serum potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. While elevated glucose and low bicarbonate are characteristic of DKA, hyperkalemia poses a higher immediate risk. Serum sodium within the normal range is not typically a primary concern in DKA.
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