HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Stridor
 - B. Nausea
 - C. Headache
 - D. Pruritus
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor indicates bronchospasm, a serious reaction that can compromise the client's airway. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone but are not as immediately life-threatening as airway compromise indicated by stridor.
2. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?
- A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
 - B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
 - C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
 - D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.
3. While removing staples from a male client's postoperative wound site, the nurse observes that the client's eyes are closed and his face and hands are clenched. The client states, 'I just hate having staples removed.' After acknowledging the client's anxiety, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Attempt to distract the client with general conversation
 - B. Administer a pain medication
 - C. Continue with the procedure while reassuring the client
 - D. Stop the procedure and notify the healthcare provider
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should attempt to distract the client with general conversation. Distracting the client can help reduce anxiety and make the procedure less stressful. Administering pain medication (choice B) is not appropriate as the client's discomfort is related to anxiety, not physical pain. Continuing with the procedure while reassuring the client (choice C) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Stopping the procedure and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is not necessary at this point since the client's anxiety can be managed by attempting to distract him.
4. The nurse discovers that an elderly client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?
- A. Frequency of laxative use for chronic constipation
 - B. Dietary intake of magnesium-rich foods
 - C. Use of magnesium-containing supplements
 - D. History of alcohol use
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Frequent use of magnesium-containing laxatives can lead to hypermagnesemia, particularly in elderly clients. Option B, dietary intake of magnesium-rich foods, may contribute to elevated serum magnesium levels but is less likely the cause in this scenario. Option C, the use of magnesium-containing supplements, can also contribute to hypermagnesemia but is not as common in elderly clients without a history of using such supplements. Option D, history of alcohol use, is less relevant to the development of elevated serum magnesium levels compared to laxative use for chronic constipation.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
 - B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
 - C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
 - D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with DKA as it may indicate worsening hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated serum potassium levels can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. While elevated glucose and low bicarbonate are characteristic of DKA, hyperkalemia poses a higher immediate risk. Serum sodium within the normal range is not typically a primary concern in DKA.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
                  
$69.99/ 30 days
                
- 5,000 Questions with answers
 - All HESI courses Coverage
 - 30 days access
 
HESI RN Premium
                  
$149.99/ 90 days
                
- 5,000 Questions with answers
 - All HESI courses Coverage
 - 30 days access