Nursing Elites

1. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a female client who has just been diagnosed with trichomoniasis?

• A. Avoid douching
• B. Treat sexual partner(s) concurrently
• C. Avoid using moist washcloths when bathing
• D. Postpone becoming pregnant until the infection is treated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a female client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is to treat sexual partner(s) concurrently. This is crucial to prevent reinfection and the spread of the infection. Choice A, avoiding douching, is generally recommended for vaginal health but is not the most critical instruction in this case. Choice C, avoiding moist washcloths when bathing, is not directly related to the transmission or treatment of trichomoniasis. Choice D, postponing pregnancy until the infection is treated, is important but treating sexual partners concurrently takes precedence to prevent reinfection.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. Carbohydrate intake helps to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is not the initial treatment for mild hypoglycemia; it is typically used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to consume oral carbohydrates. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for hypoglycemia; immediate carbohydrate intake is necessary to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be appropriate after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to address the low blood glucose levels by administering carbohydrates first.

4. A male client with hypertension tells the nurse that he is going to take ginseng to increase his stamina. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Ginseng can decrease the effectiveness of your blood pressure medication
• B. You will need to stop taking ginseng while on blood pressure medication
• C. It is important to monitor your blood pressure regularly while taking ginseng
• D. Ginseng can increase your blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Ginseng can increase blood pressure, which is a concern for clients with hypertension." Choice A is incorrect because ginseng does not typically decrease the effectiveness of blood pressure medication. Choice B is incorrect as stopping ginseng while on blood pressure medication may not be necessary. Choice C is not the most direct concern related to ginseng use in a hypertensive client, making it less relevant than the correct answer.

5. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?

• A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
• B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
• C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
• D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.

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