Nursing Elites

1. The wife of an older adult man who has had diabetes mellitus for the past 10 years reports to the home health nurse that her husband fell yesterday while taking his daily walk in the neighborhood. He has a bruised hand and a small abrasion on his left knee. The nurse assesses that his neurologic vital signs are stable. To reduce the risk for future falls, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. current blood sugar level
• B. degree of paresthesia in feet
• C. wound healing of knee abrasion
• D. A1c glycosylated hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for paresthesia (numbness or tingling) in the feet is crucial in this scenario as it can help determine if the client has a loss of sensation, which increases the risk of falls. Paresthesia is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to decreased sensation and proprioception in the feet, contributing to balance issues and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for paresthesia allows the nurse to assess the extent of sensory impairment and implement appropriate interventions to prevent future falls. While monitoring blood sugar levels (choice A) and A1c levels (choice D) are important in managing diabetes, in this case, assessing paresthesia takes precedence due to its direct impact on fall risk. Similarly, while monitoring the wound healing of the knee abrasion (choice C) is important for overall wound care, it is not directly related to reducing the risk of future falls in this situation.

2. A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Hold the medication.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Administer the medication.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used post-myocardial infarction to reduce the workload of the heart. The client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the acceptable range after a myocardial infarction. Holding the medication or calling the healthcare provider is not necessary in this scenario as the pulse rate is appropriate for administering atenolol. Checking the blood pressure is not the priority in this situation, as the focus should be on the heart rate when administering atenolol.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is an indication of proper chest tube functioning. Clear, pale yellow fluid signifies normal drainage from the pleural space without any signs of infection or complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, no fluctuation in the water-seal chamber, and intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber are all indications of potential issues or malfunctioning of the chest tube system, which would require further assessment and intervention.

4. The healthcare provider is inspecting the external eye structures of a client. Which finding is a normal racial variation?

• A. Blue sclerae.
• B. Brown macules on the sclerae.
• C. Slightly yellow sclerae in an African-American client.
• D. Conjunctival pallor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The slightly yellow color of the sclera is a normal racial variation found in the African-American population. Blue sclerae (Choice A) are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, not a normal racial variation. Brown macules on the sclerae (Choice B) may indicate issues like melanoma or melanosis but are not a normal racial variation. Conjunctival pallor (Choice D) suggests anemia or decreased blood flow but is not a normal racial variation.

5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

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