Nursing Elites

1. The wife of an older adult man who has had diabetes mellitus for the past 10 years reports to the home health nurse that her husband fell yesterday while taking his daily walk in the neighborhood. He has a bruised hand and a small abrasion on his left knee. The nurse assesses that his neurologic vital signs are stable. To reduce the risk for future falls, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. current blood sugar level
• B. degree of paresthesia in feet
• C. wound healing of knee abrasion
• D. A1c glycosylated hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for paresthesia (numbness or tingling) in the feet is crucial in this scenario as it can help determine if the client has a loss of sensation, which increases the risk of falls. Paresthesia is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to decreased sensation and proprioception in the feet, contributing to balance issues and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for paresthesia allows the nurse to assess the extent of sensory impairment and implement appropriate interventions to prevent future falls. While monitoring blood sugar levels (choice A) and A1c levels (choice D) are important in managing diabetes, in this case, assessing paresthesia takes precedence due to its direct impact on fall risk. Similarly, while monitoring the wound healing of the knee abrasion (choice C) is important for overall wound care, it is not directly related to reducing the risk of future falls in this situation.

2. A community health nurse is planning an intervention to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community. Which strategy is most effective?

• A. Hosting cooking classes on preparing healthy meals
• B. Offering free blood glucose screenings
• C. Distributing pamphlets on diabetes prevention
• D. Organizing a community walking program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective strategy to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community is hosting cooking classes on preparing healthy meals. This intervention provides practical skills and education that can directly impact dietary habits, leading to a decreased risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Offering free blood glucose screenings (Choice B) may help in early detection but does not address prevention. Distributing pamphlets on diabetes prevention (Choice C) provides information but lacks the interactive and hands-on approach of cooking classes. Organizing a community walking program (Choice D) promotes physical activity, which is beneficial, but dietary changes have a more significant impact on preventing type 2 diabetes.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is an indication of proper chest tube functioning. Clear, pale yellow fluid signifies normal drainage from the pleural space without any signs of infection or complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, no fluctuation in the water-seal chamber, and intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber are all indications of potential issues or malfunctioning of the chest tube system, which would require further assessment and intervention.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to continuous suction. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyponatremia.
• D. Hypomagnesemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. When a client has a nasogastric tube to continuous suction, potassium loss through gastric fluids can lead to hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with continuous suction. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves sodium imbalance and is not directly related to nasogastric suction. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) is not the primary concern in this situation, as potassium loss is more significant with gastric suction.

Similar Questions