Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is developing a program to increase physical activity among adults in the community. Which intervention is most likely to be successful?

• A. distributing flyers about the benefits of exercise
• B. organizing free community exercise classes
• C. partnering with local gyms to offer discounts
• D. hosting a health fair with information booths

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Organizing free community exercise classes is the most likely successful intervention as it provides a structured and accessible opportunity for adults to engage in physical activity. This choice directly offers a practical solution by providing a regular and organized setting for individuals to participate in physical activity. Distributing flyers about the benefits of exercise, while informative, may not lead to actual participation. Partnering with local gyms to offer discounts relies on individuals taking the initiative to sign up for gym memberships, which may not be feasible for everyone. Hosting a health fair with information booths is informative but may not directly address the need for increased physical activity among adults in the community.

2. When documenting assessment data, which statement should the nurse record in the narrative nursing notes?

• A. Client appears anxious.
• B. Client's skin is warm and dry.
• C. S1 murmur auscultated in supine position.
• D. Client is resting quietly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When documenting assessment data in the narrative nursing notes, it is essential to include objective findings that are specific, clear, and descriptive. 'S1 murmur auscultated in supine position' provides a precise and objective assessment finding that can aid in accurately documenting the client's condition. Choices A, B, and D are more subjective statements that lack the specificity and clarity required for detailed documentation. 'Client appears anxious' and 'Client is resting quietly' are subjective observations, while 'Client's skin is warm and dry' is an objective finding but may not be as significant or relevant for comprehensive documentation as the auscultated murmur.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following thoracic surgery. Which intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Milk the chest tube to ensure patency.
• C. Keep the drainage system at the level of the chest.
• D. Ensure that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring that the chest tube is not clamped or kinked is essential to maintain proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space, causing potential harm to the client. Milking the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the delicate tubing. Keeping the drainage system at the level of the chest ensures proper drainage by gravity, preventing backflow of fluids, but ensuring the tube is not clamped or kinked takes precedence in this scenario.

4. What information should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer?

• A. Expect heavy, watery vaginal discharge for 3 to 6 weeks.
• B. Use a tampon instead of a sanitary napkin.
• C. Report any severe cramping immediately.
• D. Avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer, clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks to reduce the risk of infection. Heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected but not the focus of post-procedure instructions. Using tampons is contraindicated as they can introduce bacteria into the healing cervix. While reporting severe cramping is important, avoiding sexual intercourse is the priority to prevent complications.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

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