HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. When caring for a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, which medication should the practical nurse anticipate being administered first?
- A. Inhaled corticosteroids.
- B. Oral corticosteroids.
- C. Short-acting beta agonists.
- D. Leukotriene receptor antagonists.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the management of acute asthma exacerbations, the first-line medication for quick relief of bronchoconstriction is a short-acting beta agonist, such as albuterol. These medications help to rapidly open up the airways, providing immediate relief to the patient. Inhaled corticosteroids are more commonly used for long-term control of asthma symptoms, while oral corticosteroids and leukotriene receptor antagonists are often reserved for more severe or chronic cases. Therefore, in a child experiencing severe asthma symptoms, the practical nurse should anticipate the administration of short-acting beta agonists as the initial intervention to provide quick relief and improve breathing.
2. What action should the nurse take when a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters?
- A. Obtain a fluid culture from the blisters
- B. Administer a fever-reducing medication
- C. Cover the drainage vesicles with a dressing
- D. Implement transmission precautions
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters, it may indicate a contagious viral infection. In such cases, implementing transmission precautions is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others in the pediatric clinic or community. Obtaining a fluid culture from the blisters (Choice A) may not be necessary at the initial stage without knowing the cause of the infection. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice B) may help manage symptoms but doesn't address the need for preventing transmission. Covering the drainage vesicles with a dressing (Choice C) may provide comfort to the child but does not directly address the risk of transmission to others.
3. The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old adolescent who was admitted to the hospital after a suicide attempt. The adolescent’s mood appears stable, and the healthcare provider has recommended discharge. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge
- B. Provide education about medication adherence
- C. Encourage the adolescent to participate in group therapy
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with a mental health professional
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to ensure that a safety plan is in place before discharge. A safety plan is essential to assist the adolescent in managing future crises and decreasing the likelihood of another suicide attempt. It provides guidance on coping strategies and resources to help the adolescent stay safe in times of distress.
4. A 3-year-old child is brought to the clinic by the parents who are concerned that the child is not yet potty trained. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Most children are potty trained by this age, so you should not be concerned
- B. Every child develops at their own pace. Let’s discuss some strategies to help
- C. Your child may need to be evaluated for developmental delays
- D. It’s best to force your child to use the potty to encourage training
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is important to acknowledge that children develop at different rates. By offering support and discussing strategies for potty training, the nurse can provide the necessary guidance without causing unnecessary concern or pressure on the parents. Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the parents' concerns. Choice C is incorrect because jumping to the conclusion of developmental delays without further assessment or discussion can cause undue anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because forcing a child to use the potty can lead to resistance and negative associations with potty training.
5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.
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