Nursing Elites

1. The nursing care plan for a toddler diagnosed with Kawasaki Disease (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome) should be based on the high risk for development of which problem?

• A. Chronic vessel plaque formation
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Occlusions at the vessel bifurcations
• D. Coronary artery aneurysms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is chronic vessel plaque formation. Kawasaki Disease affects small and medium-sized blood vessels, leading to progressive inflammation and potential damage to the walls of medium-sized muscular arteries, which can result in coronary artery aneurysms. While other complications such as pulmonary embolism and occlusions at vessel bifurcations can occur in different conditions, for Kawasaki Disease, the primary concern is the development of chronic vessel plaque formation.

2. What nursing intervention demonstrates that the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions?

• A. The nurse uses a pen pad to communicate with the patient
• B. The nurse provides oral care every 2 hours
• C. The nurse listens for bowel sounds every 4 hours
• D. The nurse suctions as needed and elevates the head of the bed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction as needed and elevate the head of the bed. This intervention is crucial for managing Ineffective Airway Clearance, which is the priority nursing diagnosis in oral cancer patients with extensive tumor involvement and/or a high amount of secretions. Suctioning helps clear secretions that may obstruct the airway, while elevating the head of the bed promotes optimal respiratory function. Providing oral care every 2 hours may be important for overall oral health but is not directly related to addressing the priority diagnosis. Listening for bowel sounds every 4 hours is more relevant to gastrointestinal assessment and not specific to managing airway clearance issues in oral cancer patients.

3. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?

• A. Detached Retina
• B. Fovea Centralis
• C. Presbyopia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.

4. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

5. When supporting the psychosocial needs of a client experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Read the client's discharge instructions well in advance of dismissal
• B. Provide medications to reduce nausea and vomiting
• C. Give simple instructions about self-care while in the hospital
• D. Determine the levels of support from significant others

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is experiencing negative side effects associated with chemotherapy, addressing their psychosocial needs is crucial. One effective intervention is to determine the levels of support from significant others. This involves assessing the family, spouse, or friends who can provide help and support to the client when healthcare providers are not present. By identifying and organizing these resources, the nurse can help alleviate fears about the future, prepare caregivers for the client's needs, and facilitate a smoother transition for the client upon discharge. Reading discharge instructions, providing medications, or giving self-care instructions, although important, do not directly address the psychosocial needs of the client during this challenging time.

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