Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?

• A. Monitor daily weights
• B. Assess skin turgor
• C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
• D. Check urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.

3. After abdominal surgery, an adult is now alert and oriented. What position is most appropriate for the client?

• A. Semi-Fowler's
• B. Prone
• C. Supine
• D. Sim's

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client following abdominal surgery is Semi-Fowler's. This position promotes greater thoracic expansion and reduces pressure on the suture line, aiding in respiratory function and preventing strain on the incision site. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Prone position (Choice B) would not be suitable after abdominal surgery as it can put pressure on the abdomen. Supine position (Choice C) may cause discomfort and strain on the incision area. Sim's position (Choice D) is primarily used for rectal exams and enemas, which are unrelated to the needs post-abdominal surgery.

4. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client’s laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are classic manifestations of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a vital role in muscle function and cardiac conduction, so a deficiency can lead to these symptoms. Checking the client’s laboratory values for potassium levels will help confirm the presence of hypokalemia.

5. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

• A. Scattered macules on the face
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Smooth nail texture
• D. Presence of skin tenting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

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