Nursing Elites

1. The client with a below-the-knee amputation is being taught about proper care of the residual limb. The most important point to emphasize would be

• A. Wrap the stump with an elastic bandage to prevent swelling
• B. Keep the skin on the stump clean and dry
• C. Use alcohol to cleanse the stump daily
• D. Apply moisturizing lotion to the stump daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Keep the skin on the stump clean and dry. This is crucial for preventing infection and promoting healing of the residual limb. Wrapping the stump with an elastic bandage can constrict blood flow and cause issues. Using alcohol to cleanse the stump daily can be too harsh and drying for the skin, leading to irritation. Applying moisturizing lotion daily is not as essential as keeping the skin clean and dry to prevent complications.

2. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

3. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

4. A client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Evaluate the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft.
• B. Instruct the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet.
• C. Recommend support stockings for venous return.
• D. Monitor the client's serum albumin levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) who has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema, the nurse should prioritize evaluating the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft. This assessment is crucial to determine if hemodialysis can be resumed, addressing the client's presenting issues effectively. Instructing the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet (choice B) may not address the underlying issue related to the CAPD. Recommending support stockings for venous return (choice C) is not directly relevant to the situation described. Monitoring the client's serum albumin levels (choice D) may be important but does not directly address the immediate concern of weight loss and increasing edema in a CAPD client.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

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