Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled surgical procedure. What client statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. I am very anxious about the surgery.
• B. I drank a glass of juice after midnight.
• C. I have an allergy to latex.
• D. I had nausea after my last surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client's statement of drinking juice after midnight should be reported to the healthcare provider. Consuming liquids after midnight can increase the risk of aspiration during surgery under general anesthesia. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical to report for the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Anxiety about surgery, latex allergy, and postoperative nausea, although important for overall care, do not pose immediate risks during the surgical preparation as the intake of fluids does.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg.
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL.
• C. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum glucose level of 600 mg/dL is extremely high in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) and poses a significant risk of serious complications such as dehydration, coma, and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid intervention is crucial to normalize the glucose level and prevent further deterioration. Serum osmolality of 320 mOsm/kg, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, while important to monitor in HHS, do not represent an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention compared to the critically high glucose level.

3. A public health nurse is planning a vaccination clinic for a rural community. Which vaccine should the nurse prioritize for adults in this area?

• A. hepatitis A
• B. influenza
• C. varicella
• D. measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: influenza.' Influenza vaccination is crucial for adults, particularly in rural areas where access to healthcare may be limited. Influenza can cause serious illness and complications, and vaccination helps protect individuals and prevent the spread of the virus. While vaccines for hepatitis A, varicella, and measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) are important, prioritizing influenza vaccination in this scenario is essential due to its seasonal prevalence and potential impact on public health. Hepatitis A and varicella vaccines are also important but may not be as immediately critical for this population. MMR vaccine is typically administered in childhood, so it is not the priority for adults in this scenario.

4. Because this year's demographics reflect that a large percentage of the population is less than 19 years of age, a community group proposes building a new well-child clinic. Which question indicates that the nurse understands the potential gaps in this data?

• A. What percentage of the population was under 19 years of age in each of the previous 5 years?
• B. What is the distribution of males to females within this population?
• C. How can the income level of the families within the community be determined?
• D. How will the large percentage under 19 years affect the community dependency ratio?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the correct answer because understanding the percentage of the population under 19 years of age in each of the previous five years helps to determine if the high percentage of youth is a consistent trend or a recent change. This information is crucial for assessing the need for a new well-child clinic. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the gaps in the data related to the age distribution trend over time, which is essential for making an informed decision about the necessity of the proposed clinic.

5. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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