Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning an immunization campaign targeting the children of migrant farm workers in the community. Which data should the nurse review before exploring solution options when developing this program plan?

• A. uncertain risks
• B. potential outcomes
• C. priority of solutions
• D. target population data

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Before designing an immunization campaign for the children of migrant farm workers, the nurse should review target population data. This includes understanding the specific demographics, health needs, and challenges faced by this population to create a tailored and effective program. Reviewing uncertain risks (choice A) may not provide actionable insights for program development. Considering potential outcomes (choice B) is important but comes after understanding the target population. Evaluating the priority of solutions (choice C) is premature without knowing the specific characteristics and needs of the target population.

2. A community health nurse is planning a program to reduce the incidence of heart disease in the community. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets
• B. Organizing free cholesterol screenings
• C. Holding workshops on stress management
• D. Partnering with local gyms to offer fitness classes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Organizing free cholesterol screenings. This intervention is crucial because it helps identify individuals at risk for heart disease by assessing their cholesterol levels. High cholesterol is a significant risk factor for heart disease, and identifying it early can lead to timely interventions and medical care. Choices A, C, and D, while beneficial for overall health, may not directly address the specific risk factor of high cholesterol associated with heart disease. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets (A) could be helpful in preventing heart disease, but identifying individuals already at risk is a more urgent need. Holding workshops on stress management (C) and partnering with local gyms for fitness classes (D) are important for overall health promotion but may not target the specific risk factor of high cholesterol as directly as organizing cholesterol screenings.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Cyanosis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxemia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, necessitating immediate intervention in a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are also concerning symptoms in pulmonary embolism; however, cyanosis signifies critical oxygen deficiency and warrants urgent attention to prevent further complications.

4. A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with the basilar skull fracture?

• A. Blurred vision.
• B. Shoulder pain.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rhinorrhea or otorrhea with halo sign. Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear) are signs of a basilar skull fracture, indicating the need to assess for possible meningeal tears that manifest as a halo sign with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage from the ears or nose. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because blurred vision, shoulder pain, and abdominal pain are not typically associated with a basilar skull fracture.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL per day.
• B. Administer a vasopressin antagonist.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Encourage a high-sodium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a vasopressin antagonist is the most critical intervention for a client with SIADH. SIADH is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A vasopressin antagonist helps manage the symptoms by blocking the effects of ADH, promoting water excretion, and restoring electrolyte balance. Restricting fluids (choice A) may exacerbate hyponatremia, monitoring intake and output (choice C) is important but not the most critical intervention, and encouraging a high-sodium diet (choice D) is contraindicated in SIADH due to the risk of worsening hyponatremia.

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