the nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease pud which subjective data reported by the client support
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.

2. A 70-kg adult with chronic renal failure is on a 40-g protein diet. The client has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would give the nurse the most concern?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, a protein-restricted diet is crucial to prevent the buildup of waste products. A low albumin level (<3.5 g/dL) indicates inadequate protein intake, raising concern as it may lead to malnutrition and tissue breakdown. Phosphorus, sodium, and potassium levels are not directly impacted by protein intake. Phosphorus levels may elevate in renal failure, but at 5 mg/dL, it is within normal range. Sodium and potassium levels are also within normal limits and not influenced by protein restriction.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.

4. Which of the following is a common cause of acute kidney injury?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infection is a common cause of acute kidney injury because when the body fights an infection, it activates the immune response, leading to inflammation. This inflammatory response can affect the kidneys and impair their function. While hypertension (choice A) is a risk factor for chronic kidney disease, it is not a direct cause of acute kidney injury. Dehydration (choice B) can lead to prerenal acute kidney injury due to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, but infection is a more common cause of acute kidney injury. Hypotension (choice D) can contribute to prerenal acute kidney injury, but it is not a direct cause like infection.

5. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of oral clindamycin (Cleocin) to a patient being treated for a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The patient has experienced nausea after several doses. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to instruct the patient to take the next dose of clindamycin with a full glass of water. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal (GI) irritation such as nausea, vomiting, and stomatitis that the patient has been experiencing. Administering the medication on an empty stomach would likely worsen the GI upset. Holding the next dose and contacting the provider is not necessary at this point unless symptoms persist or worsen. Additionally, requesting an antacid is not indicated as the primary intervention for managing the nausea related to clindamycin.

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