HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. The nurse is monitoring a client who has just had a thyroidectomy. The client complains of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. Which of these findings should the nurse assess first?
- A. Calcium level
- B. Chvostek's sign
- C. Trousseau's sign
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Chvostek's sign. This is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after a thyroidectomy due to injury or removal of the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications like tetany and laryngospasm, necessitating immediate attention. Assessing Chvostek's sign helps in early identification and management of hypocalcemia. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. While assessing the calcium level is important for diagnosing hypocalcemia, the immediate concern is to identify clinical signs like Chvostek's sign, which indicate acute hypocalcemia. Trousseau's sign is also related to hypocalcemia but is not the most critical sign to assess first. Serum potassium level, although important for overall electrolyte balance, is not directly related to the client's current symptoms of tingling in the fingers and around the mouth.
2. A client receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia is learning about compromised host precautions. The selection of which lunch suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes?
- A. grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk
- B. roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans
- C. peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea
- D. barbecue beef, baked beans, and cole slaw
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans are suitable choices for clients with neutropenia because they are considered safe options that help avoid potential sources of infection. Grilled chicken, peanut butter, and barbecue beef may carry a higher risk of bacterial contamination, which could be harmful to a client with compromised immunity.
3. A parent asks the school nurse how to eliminate lice from their child. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Cut the child's hair short to remove the nits
- B. Apply warm soaks to the head twice daily
- C. Wash the child's linen and clothing in a bleach solution
- D. Application of pediculicides
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pediculicides are the recommended treatment for lice and should be used to eliminate the infestation.
4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating after supper.
- B. I can drink coffee throughout the day.
- C. I drink milk when I get heartburn.
- D. I should not eat foods made with chocolate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Drinking coffee throughout the day can aggravate gastroesophageal reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that can help manage gastroesophageal reflux by avoiding late-night eating, not consuming trigger foods like chocolate, and using milk for relief when experiencing heartburn.
5. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
- A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
- B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
- C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
- D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
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