Nursing Elites

1. The patient had a CVA and developed right-sided hemiplegia. Which action is least appropriate for the nurse to take?

• A. Performing ROM exercises during bathing.
• B. Changing the patient's position every two hours.
• C. Suctioning the patient supine and tightly pulling the bed sheets across their feet.
• D. Placing the patient in the prone position for one hour three times a day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the patient in a supine position and pulling the bed sheets tightly across their feet can lead to foot drop, which is harmful for a patient with right-sided hemiplegia. This action can exacerbate muscle weakness and impair circulation in the affected limb. It is crucial to avoid actions that may compromise the patient's safety and well-being, such as causing foot drop in this scenario.

2. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid eating green leafy vegetables.
• B. I should wear loose-fitting clothes to avoid pressure on my legs.
• C. I should avoid prolonged sitting or standing.
• D. I should continue taking my over-the-counter herbal supplements.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'I should continue taking my over-the-counter herbal supplements' (D) indicates a need for further teaching because some herbal supplements can interact with anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. It is crucial to inform healthcare providers about all medications, including herbal supplements, to prevent adverse interactions. The other statements reflect appropriate understanding of precautions related to DVT and anticoagulation therapy.

3. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

4. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?

• A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
• B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
• C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
• D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.

5. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?

• A. Is voiding normally.
• B. Has urinary retention.
• C. Has developed renal failure.
• D. Needs an indwelling catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.

Similar Questions