HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. The nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. The client exhibits signs of hypotension, dehydration, and confusion. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?
- A. Insulin
- B. Hydrocortisone
- C. Levothyroxine
- D. Methimazole
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol. Hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid medication that is used to replace deficient cortisol levels in patients with Addison's disease. It helps stabilize blood pressure and fluid balance. Insulin (Choice A) is used to manage diabetes, not Addison's disease. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is a thyroid hormone replacement used to treat hypothyroidism, not Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism, not Addison's disease.
2. The client with type 2 DM is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse regarding the prescribed diabetic diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that:
- A. I need to skip meals if my blood glucose level is elevated.
- B. I need to eat a small meal or snack every 2 to 3 hours.
- C. I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.
- D. I need to eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.' Clients with type 2 diabetes should avoid concentrated sweets as they can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental to their health. Option A is incorrect because skipping meals can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of avoiding concentrated sweets. Option D is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not typically recommended as the primary approach for managing type 2 diabetes.
3. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
- A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
- B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
- C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
- D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.
4. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Tremors
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.
5. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Administer hypertonic saline
- C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access