Nursing Elites

1. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

2. A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

• A. U waves
• B. Absent P waves
• C. Elevated T waves
• D. Elevated ST segment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.

3. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching to a client about a do-not-resuscitate order (DNR)?

• A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead.
• B. Physicians are required to write DNR orders.
• C. A DNR order can be written after discussion with the client and family.
• D. A court decision is needed for a DNR.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in teaching a client about a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order is that it can be written after discussion with the client and family. This involves ensuring that the client and their family understand the implications and make an informed decision. Choice A is incorrect as pronouncing clinical death is not directly related to discussing a DNR order. Choice B is incorrect as while physicians typically write DNR orders, it is not a strict requirement. Choice D is incorrect as a court decision is not typically required for a DNR order; it is a decision made by the client with input from healthcare providers and family members.

4. What is the nurse manager’s role in improving the quality of care on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for monitoring patient outcomes and implementing changes to improve the quality of care on the unit.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for ensuring that staff members follow established procedures and protocols to maintain the quality of care on the unit.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing feedback and coaching to staff members to help them improve their performance and achieve the unit’s quality goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.

5. The client with Addison's disease is receiving education on managing the condition. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Increase your sodium intake during periods of stress.
• B. Avoid all types of exercise.
• C. Decrease your fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• D. Stop corticosteroid therapy once symptoms improve.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client with Addison's disease is to increase sodium intake during periods of stress. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of aldosterone leading to sodium loss. Increasing sodium intake helps to compensate for this loss and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect as exercise is beneficial for overall health but should be done in moderation. Choice C is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate to prevent dehydration since clients with Addison's disease are prone to electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as corticosteroid therapy is essential for managing Addison's disease and should not be discontinued abruptly without medical guidance.

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