Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While monitoring electrolyte levels like serum potassium and sodium is important in overall client care, they are not specific to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is a component of INR and helps in monitoring warfarin therapy, but INR gives a standardized result that is independent of the laboratory method used, making it the preferred choice for monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

• A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
• B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
• C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
• D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Positive urine ketones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L indicates metabolic acidosis in a client with DKA, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis, which is reflected by a low serum bicarbonate level. Correcting the low serum bicarbonate is crucial to normalize the metabolic acidosis and improve the client's condition. While elevated serum glucose (choice A) and urine ketones (choice D) are characteristic of DKA, addressing the metabolic acidosis takes precedence. Serum potassium (choice B) levels may also need monitoring and management, but correcting the acidosis is the priority to prevent complications like cardiovascular collapse.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering insulin is the most important intervention in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. In DKA, there is a lack of insulin leading to hyperglycemia and ketosis. Insulin administration helps to reduce blood glucose levels and correct metabolic acidosis, which are crucial in treating DKA. Administering intravenous fluids helps with dehydration, monitoring urine output is important to assess renal function, but the priority is addressing the underlying cause of DKA by administering insulin. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is incorrect as it would further elevate blood glucose levels, which is contraindicated in DKA.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.

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