Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
• B. Subcutaneous emphysema
• C. Crepitus around the insertion site
• D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema is the correct answer as it is most concerning in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. It may indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is acceptable and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site may be a normal finding after chest tube placement and does not necessarily indicate a complication. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube and does not require immediate intervention.

2. A client with a head injury is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Widening pulse pressure
• B. Sudden drop in heart rate
• C. A decrease in urine output
• D. Elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the body's compensatory mechanisms lead to an elevation in blood pressure and a widening pulse pressure. This occurs due to the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion. Therefore, elevated blood pressure and widening pulse pressure are classic signs of increased ICP and necessitate immediate attention. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a widening pulse pressure, sudden drop in heart rate, or decreased urine output are not specific indicators of increased ICP.

3. In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

5. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
• B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
• C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
• D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

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