Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This helps to cover and protect the exposed bowel, preventing infection and maintaining a moist environment for wound healing. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after addressing the immediate need of covering the wound. Administering pain medication (option C) and covering the wound with an abdominal binder (option D) are not appropriate initial actions for this situation.

2. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been 'trying to start a new business' and is 'too busy to eat.' He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Disturbed sleep pattern
• C. Disturbed thought processes
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the most critical nursing diagnosis to address in this scenario. The patient's significant weight loss and neglect of basic needs, such as eating and personal hygiene, indicate a severe imbalance in nutrition. Addressing this issue is crucial to prevent further health deterioration. Self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are important but secondary concerns compared to the immediate risk posed by imbalanced nutrition. While self-care deficit and disturbed sleep pattern are valid concerns, the patient's weight loss and neglect of basic needs take precedence. Disturbed thought processes are also significant but addressing the imbalanced nutrition is more urgent in this context.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with jaundice. Which serum laboratory value is likely to be elevated for this client?

• A. Amylase
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood urea nitrogen
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is a key serum laboratory value that is likely to be elevated in clients with jaundice. Jaundice is characterized by a yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes due to an excess of bilirubin, a breakdown product of hemoglobin. Elevated amylase levels are associated with pancreatic conditions, not specifically jaundice. Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen are markers of kidney function and are not directly related to jaundice.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia who has been febrile for 24 hours. Which data is most important for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily intake and output
• B. Skin turgor
• C. Daily weight
• D. Vital signs every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most important data for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status in this scenario. During febrile episodes, assessing daily weight is crucial as it can indicate fluid retention or loss. While monitoring intake and output is important for assessing fluid balance, daily weight provides a more comprehensive picture of fluid status over time. Skin turgor is more indicative of hydration status than overall fluid status, and vital signs, although essential, do not directly assess fluid status as effectively as daily weight.

5. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?

• A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
• B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
• C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
• D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.

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