the nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy which finding should the nurse report immediately
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.' This finding should be reported immediately as it could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise. In a post-craniotomy client, changes in breath sounds may be a sign of developing issues that need prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-craniotomy period. Pupils equal and reactive to light are expected findings, a sudden increase in urine output may require monitoring but not immediate reporting, and a small increase in blood pressure may not be alarming unless it is significantly high or accompanied by other concerning signs.

2. A client with heart failure reports nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. What should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The combination of nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations in a heart failure patient is indicative of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should first obtain a list of the client's medications to verify if they are taking digoxin.

3. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is deteriorating?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a sign of worsening septic shock. Hypotension can lead to organ failure and requires immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice A), mild fever (choice B), and slightly increased respiratory rate (choice D) are common in septic shock and may not necessarily indicate a deteriorating condition as much as hypotension does.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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