Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Initiate a structured eating plan for the client
• B. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
• C. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels
• D. Provide education on healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with bulimia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances are common due to purging behaviors and can lead to severe complications. Monitoring electrolyte levels is essential to detect and manage any imbalances promptly, as they can be life-threatening.

2. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic, concerned about frequent vomiting after feeding. The practical nurse (PN) suspects gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Which recommendation should the PN provide to the mother?

• A. Feed the infant in a prone position.
• B. Provide larger, less frequent feedings.
• C. Keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding.
• D. Offer only formula thickened with rice cereal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is to keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding. This position helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents, alleviating symptoms of reflux. Placing the infant in a prone position or providing larger, less frequent feedings may worsen symptoms by increasing the likelihood of regurgitation. Offering only formula thickened with rice cereal is not the first-line intervention for GER and should not be recommended initially.

3. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
• B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
• C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricular area
• D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child presenting with ear pain and fever, asking if the child has had a runny nose is crucial in assessing possible causes of an ear infection. Respiratory infections can lead to secondary ear infections, so exploring symptoms related to upper respiratory tract infections, like a runny nose, can help in the evaluation and management of the child's condition. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not a nurse, and only if necessary. Choice C is incorrect because applying a topical antibiotic without proper evaluation and prescription is not within the nurse's scope of practice. Choice D is incorrect because while parent education may be necessary, addressing the immediate concern of evaluating possible causes of the ear pain and fever takes priority.

4. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

5. A 10-year-old child is being discharged after being admitted for status asthmaticus. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Use a peak flow meter daily to monitor asthma control
• B. Avoid exposure to known allergens
• C. Continue taking asthma medications as prescribed
• D. Seek emergency care if symptoms worsen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a peak flow meter daily is crucial as it helps monitor asthma control by measuring how well the child's lungs are functioning. This monitoring can indicate when intervention is needed before symptoms worsen or become severe, allowing for timely management of asthma exacerbations.

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