Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assigned to care for a child who is scheduled for an appendectomy. Select the prescriptions that the nurse anticipates will be prescribed. Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Initiate an IV line.
• B. Maintain an NPO status.
• C. Administer a Fleet enema.
• D. Administer intravenous antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a child scheduled for an appendectomy, the administration of a Fleet enema is not typically required. An IV line is often initiated for fluid and medication administration, maintaining NPO status is necessary to prevent aspiration during surgery, and administering intravenous antibiotics may be part of the preoperative regimen. Therefore, the correct choice that does not apply in this case is administering a Fleet enema.

2. Diabetic patients are more prone to ____________ than other people without this chronic disorder.

• A. infection
• B. increased oxygen saturation
• C. low fibrinogen
• D. constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetic patients are more prone to infection than other people without this chronic disorder. Diabetes weakens the immune system and impairs the body's ability to fight off infections, making individuals with diabetes more susceptible to various types of infections. Increased oxygen saturation, low fibrinogen, and constipation are not directly related to diabetes or the increased infection risk associated with the condition. Increased oxygen saturation is actually a positive health indicator, low fibrinogen levels are not a common issue in diabetes, and constipation is not a primary concern when comparing diabetic patients to others without the condition.

3. A 34-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

• A. IgA
• B. IgD
• C. IgE
• D. IgG

Correct answer: D

Rationale: IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus. About 70-80% of the immunoglobulins in the blood are IgG. Specific IgG antibodies are generated after an initial exposure to an antigen, offering long-term protection against microorganisms. IgG antibodies are critical for protecting the fetus as they can be rapidly reproduced upon re-exposure to the same antigen. IgA is primarily found in mucosal areas, IgD is involved in antigen recognition, and IgE is associated with allergic reactions, but they do not provide the same level of protection to the fetus as IgG.

4. A patient underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours ago and presents to the emergency department with increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?

• A. Bowel perforation
• B. Viral gastroenteritis
• C. Colon cancer
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bowel perforation. Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy, with signs such as progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia indicating advancing peritonitis. Although colonoscopic perforation is rare (0.03% to 0.7% incidence), it can lead to high mortality and morbidity rates. Viral gastroenteritis (Choice B) typically presents with symptoms like diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, but it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. Colon cancer (Choice C) and diverticulitis (Choice D) are important conditions but are less likely to present acutely after colonoscopy compared to bowel perforation.

5. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

• A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
• B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
• C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
• D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.

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