Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

2. During a 2-week postoperative follow-up home visit, a female client who had gastric bypass surgery exhibits abdominal tenderness, shoulder pain, and describes feelings of malaise. Her vital signs are: T 101.8, BP 100/50, HR 104, and RR 18. Which action should the RN take?

• A. have the client transported via ambulance to the hospital
• B. recheck the client's vital signs in 30 minutes
• C. instruct the client to drive to the hospital for admission
• D. assess the client's current symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of a potential postoperative complication, such as fever, low blood pressure, and tachycardia, which could indicate sepsis or another serious issue. These symptoms require immediate hospital evaluation and management. Option B of rechecking vital signs in 30 minutes could delay crucial intervention in a potentially life-threatening situation. Option C is unsafe as the client should not drive herself due to her condition. Option D is vague and does not address the urgency of the situation.

3. The healthcare provider is conducting a health assessment for a family in a rural area. Which intervention should the healthcare provider prioritize to address the family's health needs?

• A. Providing information on local healthcare resources
• B. Teaching the family about proper nutrition
• C. Assisting the family in scheduling medical appointments
• D. Connecting the family with transportation services

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In rural areas, access to healthcare may be limited. Providing information on local healthcare resources is essential to ensure the family can access necessary services. While proper nutrition (choice B) and medical appointments (choice C) are important, having access to healthcare resources is fundamental. Transportation services (choice D) may be helpful but addressing the availability of healthcare resources should be the priority.

4. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.

Similar Questions