Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning finding in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates worsening pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. This symptom suggests that the client is experiencing significant difficulty in breathing and inadequate oxygenation, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is often seen in right-sided heart failure, while peripheral edema (Choice B) and crackles in the lungs (Choice D) are common manifestations of left-sided heart failure but are not as acutely concerning as severe shortness of breath, which can rapidly progress to respiratory distress if not addressed promptly.

3. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?

• A. Describe the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
• B. Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet.
• C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
• D. Suggest wearing a medical alert bracelet at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet is crucial for a client recovering from anorexia nervosa to prevent hypoglycemic episodes. Choice A is not the most important intervention at this point since the client is already aware of hypoglycemia based on the recent event. Choice C is important but not the priority in this situation where dietary intervention is crucial. Choice D, suggesting a medical alert bracelet, is not as essential as ensuring proper nutrition to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dl
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg
• D. Serum pH of 7.30

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is the most concerning finding in a client with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). This level of osmolarity indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, putting the client at risk of complications like organ failure. Immediate intervention is crucial to address the dehydration and restore fluid balance. The other options, while important in the overall assessment of a client with HHS, do not directly indicate the severity of dehydration and hyperosmolarity seen with a high serum osmolarity level.

5. A client who is at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic because she has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. The nurse determines that the client has no fever. Which instructions should the nurse give to this client?

• A. Come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider
• B. Increase your fluid intake and rest at home
• C. Take over-the-counter antiemetics as needed
• D. Monitor your symptoms and call if they worsen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to come to the clinic to be seen by a healthcare provider. Persistent vomiting during pregnancy can lead to dehydration, which requires medical evaluation. Choice B is incorrect because solely increasing fluid intake and resting at home may not be sufficient to address the potential dehydration and underlying causes of vomiting. Choice C is not recommended without medical evaluation, as over-the-counter antiemetics should be used under healthcare provider guidance during pregnancy. Choice D is not the best option here because with persistent vomiting and risk of dehydration, immediate medical assessment is crucial to ensure the well-being of both the client and the fetus.

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