Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Difficulty speaking.
• D. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Difficulty speaking is a classic symptom of a stroke, indicating a potential blockage of blood flow to the brain. Immediate intervention is crucial to minimize brain damage. While an elevated blood pressure (Choice A) may need management, it is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL (Choice B) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate intervention for a suspected stroke. A temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C) (Choice D) falls within the normal range and is not a critical finding in this context.

2. The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of 'Imbalance nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6 months.' Which short-term goal is best for this client?

• A. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.
• B. Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month.
• C. Have increased caloric intake.
• D. Show improved nutritional status.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct short-term goal for the client in this scenario is option A: 'Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of the week.' This goal is specific, measurable, and time-bound, which aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting in nursing care. It addresses the client's nutritional needs directly, focusing on increasing meal frequency to meet body requirements and counteract weight loss. Option B, 'Gain 5 pounds by the end of the month,' is not as suitable as it lacks specificity and a short-term timeline, making it less achievable within the immediate care plan. Option C, 'Have increased caloric intake,' is vague and does not provide a measurable target for the client to work towards. Option D, 'Show improved nutritional status,' is a broad goal that lacks the specificity needed for effective short-term goal setting in nursing care. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate choice for this client's short-term goal.

3. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

4. The healthcare professional is developing a health education program for adolescents on the dangers of smoking. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. showing graphic images of the effects of smoking
• B. inviting former smokers to share their experiences
• C. providing statistical data on smoking-related illnesses
• D. distributing pamphlets on smoking cessation resources

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting former smokers to share their experiences is the most effective strategy because personal stories can have a powerful impact on adolescents and motivate them to avoid smoking. This approach makes the consequences of smoking more relatable and real, potentially influencing behavior change. Showing graphic images may be too harsh and could lead to desensitization or avoidance of the issue. Providing statistical data may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing pamphlets, while informative, may not have the same emotional impact as hearing real-life experiences.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

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