Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Difficulty speaking.
• D. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Difficulty speaking is a classic symptom of a stroke, indicating a potential blockage of blood flow to the brain. Immediate intervention is crucial to minimize brain damage. While an elevated blood pressure (Choice A) may need management, it is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL (Choice B) is slightly elevated but does not require immediate intervention for a suspected stroke. A temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C) (Choice D) falls within the normal range and is not a critical finding in this context.

2. A teenage boy with a history of recurring atopic dermatitis (eczema) tells the school nurse that he wants to play high school football. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. encourage the teenager to join the swim team instead of the football team
• B. notify the parents of the problems associated with perspiration for those with eczema
• C. tell the teenager to shower with a non-perfumed soap immediately after practice
• D. inform the football coach of the teenager's skin condition and its manifestations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to advise the teenager to shower with a non-perfumed soap immediately after practice. This recommendation can help reduce the risk of eczema flare-ups by removing sweat and irritants from the skin. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific concerns related to eczema and football. Choice B, notifying the parents of perspiration problems, is not as direct as instructing the teenager on proper skincare. Choice D, informing the football coach, is not the most immediate and relevant action to address the teenager's individual needs.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/120 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Metoprolol (Lopressor).
• B. Furosemide (Lasix).
• C. Lisinopril (Zestril).
• D. Nitroprusside (Nipride).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nitroprusside (Nipride). In this scenario of severe hypertension (200/120 mm Hg), a hypertensive emergency is present, requiring rapid reduction of blood pressure. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that acts quickly to lower blood pressure in such emergencies. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure but is not indicated for hypertensive emergencies requiring rapid reduction. B) Furosemide is a diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not rapidly lower blood pressure. C) Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for long-term management of hypertension, not for immediate reduction in hypertensive emergencies.

4. When visiting a community health clinic, a client's blood pressure is measured at 146/94. What information should the nurse provide the client?

• A. Participate in an exercise program for 6 weeks
• B. Obtain blood pressure daily for 2 weeks
• C. Increase dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids
• D. Begin a low sodium diet immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to begin a low sodium diet immediately. High sodium intake can contribute to elevated blood pressure levels. By reducing sodium intake, blood pressure can be effectively lowered. Option A, participating in an exercise program, is beneficial for overall health but may not provide immediate impact on blood pressure. Option B, obtaining blood pressure daily for 2 weeks, may not address the underlying cause or provide immediate intervention. Option C, increasing dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids, though beneficial for heart health, may not have an immediate impact on lowering blood pressure compared to reducing sodium intake.

5. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among teenagers. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased attendance at educational sessions on STIs
• B. higher rates of condom use among teenagers
• C. more teenagers seeking testing for STIs
• D. greater knowledge of STI prevention methods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: higher rates of condom use among teenagers. This outcome indicates that the teenagers are adopting safer sexual practices, which can effectively reduce the incidence of STIs. Increased attendance at educational sessions (Choice A) may show interest but does not directly reflect behavior change. More teenagers seeking testing for STIs (Choice C) indicates awareness but not necessarily prevention. Greater knowledge of STI prevention methods (Choice D) is valuable but does not guarantee behavioral change like increased condom use.

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