Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

2. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time.
• B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.
• D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small-bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes. The nurse should assess tube placement in this way before taking any other action to ensure the tube is still in the correct position and prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because further assessment is needed due to the risk of tube displacement. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the feeding and involving the family is premature without confirming tube placement. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air and auscultating for gurgling is not the recommended method to confirm tube placement.

3. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client’s responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.

4. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL.
• D. The client's temperature is 100.4°F (38°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

5. When planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Functional incontinence
• C. Fluid volume deficit
• D. High risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is 'High risk for infection.' Indwelling urinary catheters pose a significant risk of infection due to their direct contact with the urinary system. Preventing and managing infections is crucial in the care of these clients. Monitoring for signs of infection, following proper catheter care protocols, and maintaining aseptic technique during catheter maintenance are essential steps to prevent complications associated with catheter-related infections. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because in this case, the immediate concern is the risk of infection associated with the presence of the urinary catheter. While self-care deficit, functional incontinence, and fluid volume deficit are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not as critical as preventing potentially serious infections related to the indwelling urinary catheter.

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