Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM for a multigravida postpartum client who is experiencing heavy, bright red vaginal bleeding. Prior to administering this medication, which intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Give the prescribed antiemetic.
• B. Administer IV fluids.
• C. Prepare for possible blood transfusion.
• D. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hemabate can cause severe nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, so administering the prescribed antiemetic can help manage these side effects. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario to administer IV fluids. Choice C is not the priority at this stage as the client's condition does not necessitate an immediate blood transfusion. Choice D is unnecessary every 5 minutes; monitoring vital signs should be done but not at such a high frequency.

2. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter. He is unresponsive, with minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Offer to notify the client's minister of his condition.
• B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
• C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
• D. Explore the possibility of organ donation with the family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to determine if the client has an executed living will. A living will provides guidance on the client's preferences for medical care in situations where they cannot communicate. This information is crucial in guiding the care team on how to proceed with treatment. Options A, C, and D, though important in certain circumstances, are not the highest priority in this situation where immediate decisions regarding the client's care need to be made.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.

4. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being monitored for choriocarcinoma. She lives in a rural area, and her husband takes the family car to work daily, leaving her without transportation during the day. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client about the use of a home pregnancy test.
• B. Schedule a weekly home visit to draw hCG values.
• C. Make a 5-week follow-up appointment with the healthcare provider.
• D. Begin chemotherapy administration during the first home visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling weekly home visits to monitor hCG levels is critical for early detection of choriocarcinoma, a potential complication of GTD. Choice A is incorrect because a home pregnancy test is not the appropriate method to monitor for choriocarcinoma. Choice C is less frequent than necessary for close monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy administration should be based on confirmed diagnosis and treatment plan, not initiated during the first home visit.

5. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Collect a clean-catch specimen
• B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
• C. Perform a bladder scan
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.

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