HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?
- A. Paralytic ileus
- B. Incisional pain
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.
2. The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times?
- A. With meals and at bedtime
- B. Every 6 hours around the clock
- C. One hour after meals and at bedtime
- D. One hour before meals and at bedtime
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sucralfate is a gastric protectant that forms a protective coating over the ulcer. Administering sucralfate 1 hour before meals and at bedtime is important to create a barrier that protects the ulcer from gastric acid and mechanical irritation. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the ulcer site and provide the desired therapeutic effect, enhancing its efficacy in promoting ulcer healing and symptom relief.
3. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?
- A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
- B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
- D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.
4. The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?
- A. Echocardiography
- B. Electrocardiography
- C. Cervical radiography
- D. Pulmonary function studies
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bleomycin, when administered intravenously, can lead to interstitial pneumonitis and potentially progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Therefore, pulmonary function studies are essential to monitor lung function and detect any early signs of pulmonary toxicity. Other tests, such as regular pulmonary assessments, should also be conducted to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.
5. The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value should the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?
- A. Clotting time
- B. Uric acid level
- C. Potassium level
- D. Blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Uric acid level. Busulfan can cause an increase in uric acid levels, leading to hyperuricemia, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Monitoring uric acid levels is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with busulfan therapy.
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