Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the medication order for accuracy.
• B. Have an epinephrine injection available.
• C. Administer a test dose to check for a reaction.
• D. Ask the client about any allergies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

2. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

3. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take the medication at the same time each day.
• C. I will use an electric razor to shave.
• D. I will take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid aspirin unless prescribed by their healthcare provider, as it can increase the risk of bleeding. The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications.

4. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Chest pain
• D. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, resulting in numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Diarrhea, hair loss, and chest pain are not typically associated with vincristine use.

5. A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication in the evening.
• B. Report any muscle pain to your healthcare provider.
• C. Avoid increasing your intake of grapefruit juice.
• D. Do not take the medication with a high-fat meal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain can be a sign of a serious side effect of simvastatin (Zocor) known as rhabdomyolysis and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The medication is usually taken in the evening to coincide with the body's natural production of cholesterol. Grapefruit juice should be avoided as it can increase the risk of toxicity by affecting the metabolism of the medication. Additionally, taking simvastatin with a high-fat meal can reduce its effectiveness, so it should be taken without food or with a light meal.

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