HESI RN
Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet
1. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is prescribed for a patient. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching about this medication has been effective?
- A. I will try to drink at least 8 glasses of water every day.
- B. I will use a salt substitute to decrease my sodium intake.
- C. I will increase my intake of potassium-containing foods.
- D. I will drink apple juice instead of orange juice for breakfast.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so patients should choose low-potassium foods. Apple juice is a better choice than orange juice in this case as it is lower in potassium. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake excessively is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as salt substitutes are high in potassium, which should be avoided. Option C is incorrect because patients on spironolactone should avoid increasing their potassium intake.
2. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?
- A. Assess for facial muscle spasms.
- B. Ask the patient about loose stools.
- C. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals.
- D. Ask the healthcare provider to order a basic metabolic panel.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
3. A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Discontinue the nasogastric suction.
- B. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg.
- C. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results.
- D. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient’s respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse’s first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.
4. A patient with renal failure has been taking aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) at home for indigestion. The patient arrives for outpatient hemodialysis and is unresponsive to questions and has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Which action should the dialysis nurse take first?
- A. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
- B. Obtain an order to draw a potassium level.
- C. Review the magnesium level on the patient’s chart.
- D. Teach the patient about the risk of magnesium-containing antacids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The health care provider should be notified immediately. The patient has a history and manifestations consistent with hypermagnesemia. The nurse should check the chart for a recent serum magnesium level and make sure that blood is sent to the laboratory for immediate electrolyte and chemistry determinations. Dialysis should correct the high magnesium levels. The patient needs teaching about the risks of taking magnesium-containing antacids. Monitoring of potassium levels also is important for patients with renal failure, but the patient’s current symptoms are not consistent with hyperkalemia.
5. At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
- B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.
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