Nursing Elites

1. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.

• A. Infants: High bilirubin
• B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
• C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
• D. The Elderly: Malaria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.

2. While caring for a client in labor, a nurse attaches an electronic fetal monitor to the client's abdomen to assess the baby's heart rate. The nurse observes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction and does not return to normal limits until after the contraction is complete. What type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

• A. Variable decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Early decelerations
• D. Accelerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are characterized by the baby's heart rate declining in utero during contractions. The heart rate drops below baseline and stays low until after the contraction ends. Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can compromise fetal oxygenation. This pattern is a non-reassuring sign and requires immediate intervention. Variable decelerations are typically abrupt decreases in heart rate, often associated with cord compression. Early decelerations, on the other hand, mirror the contractions and are considered benign, resulting from fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, indicating a responsive and healthy fetal nervous system.

3. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

4. Who owns a patient's x-rays?

• A. The patient
• B. The doctor
• C. The facility that performed the procedure
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: X-rays are typically owned by the facility that conducts the procedure, not the patient or the doctor. The facility that performs the procedure is responsible for maintaining and storing the x-rays as part of the patient's medical records. The patient does not own the x-rays since they are part of their medical record and not a physical possession. The doctor also does not own the x-rays as they are generated as a result of the medical procedure conducted at the facility, making choice C the correct answer.

5. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

Similar Questions