NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Research participants are involved in a trial that incidentally separates them into two groups. One group receives an intervention, while the other group does not. Both groups are compared for outcomes. What type of research method is this?
- A. Experimental design
- B. Double-blind experiment
- C. Randomized controlled trial
- D. Repeated measures design
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A randomized controlled trial is a research method in which participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment or control group. This design helps eliminate bias and allows for the comparison of outcomes between the two groups. In this scenario, where participants are separated into intervention and non-intervention groups for comparison, it aligns with the characteristics of a randomized controlled trial. The key feature distinguishing it from the other options is the random assignment of participants to groups, ensuring that both groups are comparable at the start of the study. Double-blind experiments involve blinding both participants and researchers to treatment allocation, which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Experimental design refers to a broader category that includes various types of research designs beyond just randomized controlled trials. Repeated measures design involves collecting multiple observations from the same participants over time, which is not the case described in the scenario.
2. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?
- A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
- D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.
3. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?
- A. Family history of heart disease
- B. Overweight
- C. Smoking
- D. Age
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.
4. The client is being educated about depression by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. ''All elderly individuals experience depression occasionally.''
- B. ''I'm relieved that I will improve within 2 or 3 days.''
- C. ''I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause.''
- D. ''Reducing stress in my life will alleviate the depression.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer, 'I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause,' demonstrates an understanding that depression can arise without a clear trigger, indicating effective teaching. Choice A is incorrect because not all elderly individuals experience depression, and this statement doesn't show understanding. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects a misconception about the quick resolution of depression. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between stress reduction and depression resolution.
5. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.
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