NCLEX-RN
Saunders NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Research participants are involved in a trial that incidentally separates them into two groups. One group receives an intervention, while the other group does not. Both groups are compared for outcomes. What type of research method is this?
- A. Experimental design
- B. Double-blind experiment
- C. Randomized controlled trial
- D. Repeated measures design
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A randomized controlled trial is a research method in which participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment or control group. This design helps eliminate bias and allows for the comparison of outcomes between the two groups. In this scenario, where participants are separated into intervention and non-intervention groups for comparison, it aligns with the characteristics of a randomized controlled trial. The key feature distinguishing it from the other options is the random assignment of participants to groups, ensuring that both groups are comparable at the start of the study. Double-blind experiments involve blinding both participants and researchers to treatment allocation, which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Experimental design refers to a broader category that includes various types of research designs beyond just randomized controlled trials. Repeated measures design involves collecting multiple observations from the same participants over time, which is not the case described in the scenario.
2. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?
- A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
- B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
- C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
- D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.
3. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Hypotension
- D. Pinpoint rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.
4. Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
- A. Swelling
- B. Rapid pulse
- C. Fever
- D. High white blood count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A local sign of infection refers to symptoms that are specific to the area of infection. Swelling, heat, pain, and redness near the infected site are examples of local signs. In the context of infection, swelling occurs due to an accumulation of fluid and immune cells at the site of infection. Rapid pulse, fever, and high white blood count are more systemic responses to infection and not specific local signs. Rapid pulse can indicate systemic distress or sepsis, fever is a systemic response to infection, and high white blood count is a laboratory finding that suggests an immune response but is not a direct sign of infection at a specific site.
5. A nurse is caring for an 83-year-old man who has had swallowing difficulties. All of the following interventions are appropriate for this client EXCEPT:
- A. Keep the client in an upright position at all times
- B. Auscultate lung sounds every shift and after feedings
- C. Maintain suction equipment at the client's bedside
- D. Instruct the client about how to perform swallowing exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a client with swallowing difficulties, it is crucial to prevent aspiration of food into the lungs. Appropriate interventions include auscultating lung sounds every shift and after feedings to assess for any changes in breathing patterns, maintaining suction equipment at the client's bedside in case of difficulties, and providing instruction on swallowing exercises. Keeping the client in an upright position at all times is not necessary and may not always be feasible or comfortable for the client. This rigid requirement is not part of the standard care protocol for managing swallowing difficulties.
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