Nursing Elites

1. Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin daily. Which of the following prescription changes does the nurse anticipate during therapy with prednisone?

• A. An additional dose of prednisone daily
• B. A decreased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
• C. An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
• D. The addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily, the nurse should anticipate an increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin. Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can elevate blood glucose levels, requiring an increase in insulin dosage to maintain optimal blood sugar control.

2. A client is prescribed calcium gluconate after thyroidectomy. The medication is most likely prescribed to:

• A. Treat thyroid storm.
• B. Prevent cardiac irritability.
• C. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
• D. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently removed or damaged, leading to a decrease in calcium levels and potentially causing hypocalcemic tetany. Calcium gluconate is given to supplement calcium levels and prevent or treat hypocalcemia-related symptoms, such as muscle spasms and tetany.

3. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular dose of penicillin to a client with a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the medication order for accuracy.
• B. Have an epinephrine injection available.
• C. Administer a test dose to check for a reaction.
• D. Ask the client about any allergies.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client who has a history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin, the priority action for the healthcare professional is to have an epinephrine injection readily available in case of a severe allergic reaction. In such cases, the immediate focus is on being prepared to manage a potentially life-threatening situation. While checking the medication order for accuracy, administering a test dose, and asking the client about allergies are essential steps in medication administration, the first priority is ensuring the availability of epinephrine to address a severe allergic reaction promptly.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed losartan (Cozaar). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• B. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• C. Monitor blood pressure weekly.
• D. Report any swelling of the lips or face.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed losartan (Cozaar) is to report any swelling of the lips or face. Losartan can cause angioedema, which is a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Clients do not need to avoid potassium-rich foods unless specifically instructed by their healthcare provider. Taking the medication with grapefruit juice is not recommended as it can interact with certain medications. Additionally, monitoring blood pressure regularly is important, but it should not be limited to a weekly basis; blood pressure should be monitored as per the healthcare provider's recommendation.

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