Nursing Elites

1. Outlet of the true pelvis anteriorly bounded by:

• A. Ischiopubic arch (T)
• B. Linea terminalis (F)
• C. Coccyx (T)
• D. Promontory of the sacrum (F)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ischiopubic arch. The outlet of the true pelvis is indeed anteriorly bounded by the ischiopubic arch, which consists of the ischium and the pubic bones. This structure forms the lower boundary of the pelvic outlet. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect. The linea terminalis (pelvic brim) forms the upper boundary of the true pelvis, the coccyx is part of the bony pelvis but does not bound the pelvic outlet anteriorly, and the promontory of the sacrum is located in the posterior part of the pelvis, not the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet.

2. Menopausal women require a diet rich in calcium to prevent osteoporosis. Which one of the following is a source of calcium?

• A. Spinach
• B. Cabbage
• C. Carrots
• D. Rape

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spinach is a good source of calcium, which is crucial for preventing osteoporosis in menopausal women. Spinach is a leafy green vegetable high in calcium content. While cabbage, carrots, and rape are nutritious, they do not provide as much calcium as spinach does. Therefore, spinach is the correct choice for menopausal women looking to increase their calcium intake.

3. What is the leading cause of maternal mortality?

• A. Pre-eclampsia
• B. Haemorrhage
• C. Sepsis
• D. Obstructed labour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Haemorrhage. Haemorrhage is a leading cause of maternal mortality due to excessive bleeding during childbirth. While conditions like pre-eclampsia, sepsis, and obstructed labor can also be serious complications during pregnancy and childbirth, they are not the primary cause of maternal mortality worldwide.

4. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:

• A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
• B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
• C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
• D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.

5. What is Diazepam used for?

• A. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
• B. Management of pre-eclampsia.
• C. Induction of labor.
• D. Relieving anxiety.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diazepam is primarily used for relieving anxiety and muscle spasms. It is a benzodiazepine medication that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter in the brain to produce a calming effect. While Diazepam is not used for managing post-partum hemorrhage, pre-eclampsia, or inducing labor, it is essential in treating anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and certain types of seizures. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the primary therapeutic use of Diazepam.

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