HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:
- A. 28 days
- B. 30 days
- C. 35 days
- D. 40 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.
2. What is included in the Quality of Care in reproductive health?
- A. Ensuring accessible services, privacy, confidentiality, and continuity of care.
- B. Providing reproductive health services only in urban areas.
- C. Ensuring that all women deliver in a hospital setting.
- D. Ensuring that reproductive health services are only provided by doctors.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Quality of care in reproductive health encompasses ensuring accessible services, privacy, confidentiality, and continuity of care. These elements are crucial in providing comprehensive and effective reproductive health services. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not adequately address the holistic approach required for quality reproductive health care. Providing services only in urban areas limits accessibility, mandating hospital deliveries may not be suitable for all women, and restricting services to doctors only disregards the importance of a multi-disciplinary approach in reproductive health care.
3. Which of the following methods is used for permanent contraception in males?
- A. Vasectomy
- B. Tubal ligation
- C. Condoms
- D. Coitus interruptus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasectomy. Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for permanent contraception in males by cutting or blocking the vas deferens. Choice B, Tubal ligation, is a method for permanent contraception in females by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes. Choice C, Condoms, provide a barrier method of contraception but are not permanent. Choice D, Coitus interruptus, involves withdrawing the penis before ejaculation and is not a reliable method of contraception.
4. Which statement accurately describes the female pelvis?
- A. Gynaecoid pelvis has a wedge-shaped inlet
- B. Platypelloid pelvis has an oval inlet
- C. Anthropoid pelvis has a long narrow oval inlet
- D. Android pelvis is wedge-shaped
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Platypelloid pelvis indeed has an oval inlet. Gynaecoid pelvis, not mentioned in the choices, has a round inlet. Anthropoid pelvis has a long, narrow oval inlet, which makes choice C incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as the Android pelvis is actually heart-shaped with a narrowed inlet.
5. What is the function of luteinizing hormone?
- A. Maintains the corpus luteum
- B. Ripens the Graafian follicle
- C. Prepares the breasts for lactation
- D. Produces regrowth of the endometrium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Luteinizing hormone is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum after ovulation. This is crucial for the production of progesterone, which helps prepare the endometrium for implantation and supports early pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B is the function of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) which stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles, C is mainly regulated by prolactin, and D is primarily associated with estrogen and progesterone.
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