Nursing Elites

1. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:

• A. 28 days
• B. 30 days
• C. 35 days
• D. 40 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.

2. Which one of the following is not a stage in the ovarian cycle of the menstrual cycle?

• A. Recruitment of Graafian follicle
• B. Selection of dominant follicle
• C. Luteal phase
• D. Formation of corpus luteum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The recruitment of the Graafian follicle is indeed a stage in the ovarian cycle. During the ovarian cycle, the primary follicles are recruited to develop further, leading to the formation of the Graafian follicle. The selection of the dominant follicle, luteal phase, and formation of the corpus luteum are other essential stages in the ovarian cycle. Therefore, option A is not correct as it is a crucial phase in the process of ovulation and fertilization.

3. Which department of the Government ministries was given the mandate to pilot a draft population policy?

• A. The department of planning and development
• B. National census
• C. Human rights
• D. Central statistics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The department of planning and development. In the extract provided, it explicitly mentions that this department was tasked with piloting the population policy. The other choices are incorrect because the National census is primarily responsible for collecting demographic data, Human rights focus on ensuring and protecting human rights, and Central statistics deal with statistical data collection and analysis, none of which directly align with piloting a population policy.

4. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

5. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?

• A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
• B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
• C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
• D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.

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