oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than

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Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers

1. Oligomenorrhea is defined as a cycle longer than:

A. 28 days
B. 30 days
C. 35 days
D. 40 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Oligomenorrhea is defined as a menstrual cycle longer than 35 days. A cycle of 28 days (Choice A) is within the normal range, and not considered oligomenorrhea. Similarly, 30 days (Choice B) and 40 days (Choice D) are also within the normal range. The correct definition of oligomenorrhea specifically refers to cycles longer than 35 days, making Choice C the correct answer.

2. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?

A. Progesterone/estrogen
B. LH/FSH
C. FSH/LH
D. Glucagon/insulin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.

3. A menstrual disorder with irregular or continuous bleeding from the uterus is known as:

A. Menorrhagia
B. Metrorrhagia
C. Polymenorrhoea
D. Epimenorrhoea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metrorrhagia is the correct term for irregular or continuous bleeding from the uterus. Menorrhagia refers to heavy menstrual bleeding, not necessarily irregular. Polymenorrhoea is characterized by frequent menstrual periods, while Epimenorrhoea is not a recognized medical term related to menstrual disorders.

4. Which of the following is incorrect about oral contraceptive pill 'Saheli'?

A. It is taken by females
B. It has very few side effects
C. It is a steroidal preparation
D. It is 'Once a week' pill

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Saheli' is not a steroidal preparation, it is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.

5. Practices such as female genital mutilation and unsafe male circumcision are categorized as:

A. Harmful traditional practices
B. Encouraged in rural Zambia
C. Recommended in modern surgery and IRH
D. Safer sex practices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Practices like female genital mutilation and unsafe male circumcision are considered harmful traditional practices due to the physical and psychological harm they cause. Choice A is correct as these practices are not safe or recommended. Choice B is incorrect, as harmful traditional practices are not encouraged anywhere. Choice C is incorrect as modern surgery and organizations like IRH aim to eliminate such practices, not recommend them. Choice D is incorrect as these practices are not related to safer sex practices but rather harmful practices that need to be eradicated.