Nursing Elites

1. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the health care provider as soon as possible?

• A. Daily black, sticky stool
• B. Daily dark brown stool
• C. Firm brown stool every other day
• D. Soft light brown stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily black, sticky stool. Black sticky stool (melena) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and should be reported to the health care provider promptly. This finding indicates the presence of digested blood in the stool. Choices B, C, and D describe variations of normal stool color and consistency, which do not raise immediate concerns related to gastrointestinal bleeding.

2. The nurse plans to assist a male client out of bed for the first time since his surgery yesterday. His wife objects and tells the nurse to get out of the room because her husband is too ill to get out of bed. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer nasal oxygen at a rate of 5 L/min
• B. Help the client to lie back down in the bed
• C. Quickly pivot the client to the chair and elevate the legs
• D. Check the client’s blood pressure and pulse

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before assisting the client out of bed, the nurse should first assess the client's blood pressure and pulse. This assessment is crucial to determine the client's physiological stability and readiness for ambulation. It ensures the client's safety during the transfer and helps prevent any potential complications that may arise from getting out of bed. Administering oxygen, lying the client back down, or quickly moving the client to a chair without assessing vital signs can compromise the client's safety and may lead to adverse outcomes.

3. After hemodialysis, a client with a history of chronic renal failure has just returned to the unit. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?

• A. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• C. Monitor the client's weight.
• D. Check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial assessment for the nurse to make after hemodialysis in a client with chronic renal failure is to check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill (D). This assessment is essential to ensure the patency of the fistula and adequate blood flow. Auscultating lung sounds (A), assessing blood pressure (B), and monitoring weight (C) are important assessments but are secondary to evaluating the fistula. Checking the fistula is vital as it directly impacts the effectiveness of the client's dialysis treatment and the patency of the vascular access, ensuring successful dialysis sessions.

4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
• C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
• D. Limit intake of high-protein foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

5. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

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