Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

2. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?

• A. Monitor daily urine output volume
• B. Drink plenty of water whenever thirsty
• C. Use salt tablets for sodium content
• D. Review food labels for sodium content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.

3. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?

• A. Gallbladder disease
• B. Liver disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Skeletal muscle injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.

4. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

5. When a health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?

• A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation because the older adult is in a condition to make such decisions.
• B. Because the client is mentally incompetent, the son does not have the right to waive informed consent for her.
• C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
• D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, it is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from the client before proceeding with any medical intervention. If informed consent is withheld and the treatment is carried out without the client's agreement, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery. This legal principle emphasizes the importance of respecting a client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Despite the son's wishes to withhold information from his mother, the client must be informed of the proposed treatment and given the opportunity to consent or refuse based on complete information provided by the healthcare team.

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