Nursing Elites

1. What is the purpose of hysteroscopy?

• A. View the uterine cavity
• B. Perform a D&C procedure
• C. Remove the fetus
• D. Visualize the fallopian tubes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hysteroscopy is a procedure where a very narrow endoscope is inserted through the cervix to view the uterine cavity. This allows healthcare providers to diagnose and treat various uterine conditions such as polyps, fibroids, and adhesions. Choice B, performing a D&C procedure, involves dilating the cervix and scraping the uterine lining, which is a different procedure. Choice C, removing the fetus, is not the purpose of hysteroscopy and is a procedure done in specific circumstances such as pregnancy termination or miscarriage management. Choice D, visualizing the fallopian tubes, is typically done through a procedure called a hysterosalpingogram, which is different from hysteroscopy.

2. Which group of the population does the Maternal nutrition component of IRH improve?

• A. Women and adolescent girls
• B. Pregnant women alone
• C. Pregnant women and all children under five
• D. All adolescents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Women and adolescent girls. Maternal nutrition programs typically target women of reproductive age and adolescent girls to improve their health outcomes. Option B is incorrect because maternal nutrition initiatives extend beyond just pregnant women. Option C is incorrect because the focus is not on all children under five but specifically on women and adolescent girls. Option D is incorrect because the program does not target all adolescents, but rather women and adolescent girls.

3. Each breast is situated on each side of the sternum and extends between the:

• A. 1st and 6th rib
• B. 2nd and 6th rib
• C. 3rd and 6th rib
• D. 4th and 6th rib

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2nd and 6th rib. Each breast is situated between the 2nd and 6th ribs. This anatomical location is important for understanding breast examination techniques and identifying potential abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the breasts do not extend as far as the 1st, 3rd, or 4th rib, respectively. Understanding the precise anatomical location of structures is crucial in healthcare to ensure accurate assessments and interventions.

4. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?

• A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
• B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
• C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
• D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.

5. What is the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions from 591 maternal deaths per 100,000 live births?

• A. 0.1
• B. 0.2
• C. 0.3
• D. 0.4

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions, you divide the number of deaths due to unsafe abortions by the total number of maternal deaths and then multiply by 100 to get the percentage. In this case, with 591 maternal deaths and 40% estimated to be due to unsafe abortions, the calculation is (591 * 0.4) / 100, which equals 2.36. Therefore, the estimated percentage of deaths due to unsafe abortions from 591 maternal deaths per 100,000 live births is 0.4 or 40%. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect percentages that do not reflect the provided information.

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