HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) does not cause cold sores of the lips:
- A. True.
- B. False.
- C. Depends on the person.
- D. Not enough information.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) typically causes genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips. Cold sores on the lips are commonly caused by herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1). Therefore, the statement that HSV-2 causes cold sores of the lips is incorrect. Choice B, 'False,' is the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because HSV-2 does not cause cold sores on the lips. Choice C, 'Depends on the person,' is incorrect as the cause of cold sores is predominantly linked to HSV-1. Choice D, 'Not enough information,' is also incorrect as this information is well-established in medical knowledge.
2. What is the primary use of Bromocriptine?
- A. Relieve constriction ring.
- B. Manage post-partum hemorrhage.
- C. Affect milk production.
- D. Be used in pre-eclampsia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bromocriptine is primarily used to affect milk production. It is a medication commonly prescribed to help suppress lactation, particularly in cases of postpartum breast engorgement or when stopping breastfeeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Bromocriptine is not indicated for relieving constriction ring, managing post-partum hemorrhage, or treating pre-eclampsia.
3. What do you call a system involving other government Ministries, Non-Governmental Organizations, Politicians, Policy makers, Senior managers, the Community, Church organizations, and other concerned bodies and users of services?
- A. Community participation
- B. Peer consultation
- C. Multi-sectoral approach
- D. Appropriate technology
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A multi-sectoral approach involves collaboration among various sectors and stakeholders to address complex issues comprehensively. In this context, it ensures that different entities work together to provide inclusive and effective services. Choice A, 'Community participation,' focuses more on the involvement of the community specifically. Choice B, 'Peer consultation,' pertains to seeking advice or input from peers within the same field. Choice D, 'Appropriate technology,' refers to the use of suitable technology for a particular situation, which is not the primary focus of the described system.
4. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?
- A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
- B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
- C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
- D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.
5. Which of the following is included in a gynecological examination?
- A. Abdominal examination
- B. General and systemic examination
- C. Obstetric exam
- D. Pelvic examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! A gynecological examination typically includes an abdominal examination to assess the overall health of the patient. This includes checking for any abnormalities, tenderness, or masses. General and systemic examinations are also important as they provide valuable information about the patient's overall health status. Pelvic examination is another essential component of a gynecological exam to assess the reproductive organs. Obstetric exams, focusing on pregnant women, are not part of routine gynecological examinations.
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