Nursing Elites

1. For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign because they indicate which of the following?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs are clinical manifestations that suggest hypocalcemia, a common complication following thyroidectomy. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle contraction, while Trousseau's sign is provoked by inflating a blood pressure cuff, leading to carpal spasm. Both signs are indicative of low calcium levels in the blood. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correlate with the signs specifically associated with hypocalcemia.

2. The client with hypothyroidism is being educated by the healthcare provider about taking levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Take the medication at bedtime
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach in the morning
• D. Take the medication with a glass of milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach in the morning. This instruction is essential to enhance absorption and efficacy of the medication. Taking levothyroxine with meals, at bedtime, or with a glass of milk can interfere with its absorption and effectiveness, leading to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

3. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions?

• A. Resource allocation
• B. Monitoring
• C. Job analysis and redesign
• D. Planning for the future

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Planning for the future. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in decisional activities related to planning for the future. This involves analyzing potential impacts of policy changes and community shifts on the unit's functioning and making decisions based on predictions and foresight. Option A, resource allocation, focuses on distributing resources effectively. Option B, monitoring, involves observing and assessing current activities. Option C, job analysis and redesign, pertains to evaluating and restructuring roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not the primary focus of the scenario provided.

4. What is the lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of DM?

• A. 90 mg/dl.
• B. 115 mg/dl.
• C. 126 mg/dl.
• D. 180 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Choice A (90 mg/dl) is too low to indicate diabetes. Choice B (115 mg/dl) is also below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Choice D (180 mg/dl) is above the diagnostic threshold and would indicate uncontrolled diabetes, not the lowest level suggestive of a diagnosis.

5. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

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