Nursing Elites

1. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Tremors
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.

2. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority for a female client with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess
• B. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing
• C. Body image disturbance related to weight gain and edema
• D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess. In hyperthyroidism, increased metabolic rate leads to increased nutritional needs, causing weight loss and muscle wasting. Therefore, addressing imbalanced nutrition due to excessive thyroid hormone is a priority. Choice A is incorrect as hyperthyroidism typically leads to weight loss, not weight gain. Choice B is less of a priority as skin issues are secondary to the metabolic disturbances caused by hyperthyroidism. Choice C, body image disturbance, is important but addressing the client's nutritional needs should take precedence to prevent further complications.

3. The client with type 2 DM is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse regarding the prescribed diabetic diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that:

• A. I need to skip meals if my blood glucose level is elevated.
• B. I need to eat a small meal or snack every 2 to 3 hours.
• C. I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.
• D. I need to eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.' Clients with type 2 diabetes should avoid concentrated sweets as they can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental to their health. Option A is incorrect because skipping meals can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of avoiding concentrated sweets. Option D is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not typically recommended as the primary approach for managing type 2 diabetes.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

5. A nurse manager is working to improve patient satisfaction on the unit. Which of the following best describes the nurse manager’s role in this process?

• A. The nurse manager should set clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitor progress, and provide feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care.
• B. The nurse manager should gather data on patient satisfaction, identify areas for improvement, and implement strategies to enhance the patient experience.
• C. The nurse manager should develop a patient satisfaction improvement plan, set measurable goals, and track progress over time to ensure continuous improvement.
• D. The nurse manager should involve patients and families in the patient satisfaction improvement process, gather feedback, and use it to make improvements to care delivery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse manager's role in improving patient satisfaction involves setting clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care. Choice B is incorrect as gathering data and implementing strategies are typically part of quality improvement initiatives but do not solely define the nurse manager's role. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse manager is responsible for setting expectations and monitoring progress rather than developing the improvement plan. Choice D is incorrect as involving patients and families and gathering feedback are important aspects, but the question specifically asks about the nurse manager's role, which primarily involves setting expectations, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff.

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