Nursing Elites

1. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
• B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can be maintained regardless of weight.
• C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
• D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the client to talk about specific concerns. This approach provides an opportunity for the client to express her worries openly, allowing the nurse to gather more detailed information for a comprehensive assessment and to address the client's concerns effectively.

2. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a 65-year-old client who attends an adult daycare program, is wheelchair-mobile, and has redness in the sacral area?

• A. Take a vitamin supplement tablet once a day.
• B. Change positions in the chair at least every hour.
• C. Increase daily intake of water or other oral fluids.
• D. Purchase a newer model wheelchair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with redness in the sacral area, the most critical instruction is to change positions in the chair at least every hour. This is crucial to prevent pressure ulcers, which can develop due to prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. Regular position changes help relieve pressure on vulnerable areas, promoting circulation and reducing the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcer formation.

3. A client is admitted with a fever of unknown origin. To assess fever patterns, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Document the client’s temperature fluctuations
• B. Assess for flushed, warm skin consistently
• C. Measure temperature at regular intervals
• D. Use different sites for temperature measurement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess fever patterns accurately, the nurse should measure the client’s temperature at regular intervals. This approach helps in identifying the pattern of fever spikes and fluctuations, which can provide valuable information for diagnostic and treatment purposes. Assessing for flushed, warm skin or documenting circadian rhythms may not directly reveal the fever pattern, while varying temperature measurement sites could lead to inconsistent readings. Therefore, measuring temperature at regular intervals is the most appropriate intervention to identify fever patterns in this scenario.

4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
• C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
• D. Limit intake of high-protein foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

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