Nursing Elites

1. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the client from the bed to a chair.
• B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair.
• C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three.
• D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist the client to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.

2. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

4. The healthcare provider is teaching a client with hypertension about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Limit sodium intake to 2,300 mg per day
• B. Engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily
• C. Consume a diet high in saturated fats
• D. Avoid alcohol consumption completely

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Engaging in moderate exercise for 30 minutes daily is a crucial lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. Regular physical activity helps lower blood pressure, improve cardiovascular health, and overall well-being. It is recommended to engage in activities like brisk walking, cycling, or swimming to achieve these benefits. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting sodium intake, avoiding a diet high in saturated fats, and reducing alcohol consumption are also important lifestyle modifications for hypertension management, but engaging in moderate exercise is the most appropriate initial instruction for this client.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin IV.
• B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
• C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
• D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

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