as the nurse is speaking with a group of teens which of these side effects of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more int
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. When speaking with a group of teens, which side effect of chemotherapy for cancer would the nurse expect this group to be more interested in discussing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hair loss is the correct answer. Teens are often more concerned about hair loss because of its visible impact and social implications. While mouth sores, fatigue, and diarrhea are also common side effects of chemotherapy, hair loss tends to be a significant concern for teens due to its effect on self-image and confidence.

2. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.

3. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with altered renal function, monitoring fluid balance is crucial. Weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the visits as it reflects cumulative changes in the body's fluid status. Changes in intake and output (Choice A) can provide valuable information, but weekly weight is a more direct measure of overall fluid retention or loss. Changes in mucous membranes (Choice B) and skin turgor (Choice C) can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less reliable indicators in this context.

4. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease. This finding suggests active bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, requiring immediate attention. A normal heart rate of 72 beats per minute (choice A) is within the expected range. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (choice B) is also within normal limits. Nausea and vomiting (choice D) are common symptoms associated with peptic ulcer disease but may not necessarily indicate active bleeding like black, tarry stools.

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