Nursing Elites

1. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

2. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?

• A. Decreased chest pain.
• B. Increased blood pressure.
• C. Decreased blood pressure.
• D. Decreased heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.

3. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

• A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
• B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
• C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
• D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

4. Which of the following is a key symptom of hypothyroidism?

• A. Weight loss.
• B. Heat intolerance.
• C. Cold intolerance.
• D. Increased appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cold intolerance is a key symptom of hypothyroidism because a decreased metabolic rate leads to a reduced ability to regulate body temperature. Weight loss (Choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where the metabolic rate is increased. Heat intolerance (Choice B) is also more indicative of hyperthyroidism, where excess thyroid hormone leads to an increased sensitivity to heat. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically seen in hypothyroidism; instead, individuals with hypothyroidism may experience weight gain due to the slowed metabolism.

5. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

• A. Two weeks before menstruation.
• B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
• C. Low basal temperature.
• D. First thing in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

Similar Questions