Nursing Elites

1. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

2. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
• B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
• C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
• D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.

3. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

• A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
• B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
• C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
• D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

4. Blood for arterial blood gas determinations is drawn from a client with pneumonia, and testing reveals a pH of 7.45, PCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 19 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as indicative of:

• A. Compensated metabolic acidosis
• B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
• C. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
• D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis.' In this case, the client's pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating compensation. The low PCO2 (30 mm Hg) suggests respiratory alkalosis, while the low HCO3 (19 mEq/L) is also consistent with a compensatory response. Therefore, the client has a primary respiratory alkalosis that is being compensated for by metabolic acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fit the pattern of the given blood gas values, which indicate respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation.

5. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?

• A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
• B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
• C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
• D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.

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